Exam practice

SIA security officer practice test for Scotland: 25 free questions

Try 25 original questions across the three security officer knowledge papers, with the Scots law that differs from England and Wales: arrest, force, breach of the peace, offences and fire safety. Choose an answer, then open the explanation to see the correct one and the law behind it.

Contents

Practice questions, not the real exam

These questions are original. They were written from the public SIA test specification, the legislation and Scottish court and government sources, not copied from any awarding body, past paper or app. This guide is not from or endorsed by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), an awarding body or any Scottish public body. The real papers are set by an awarding body and will word things differently. The questions cover Scots law and the law that applies across Scotland. The law changes, so check the sources at the end before you rely on an answer. This is not legal advice.

About the SIA security officer (Scotland) exam

The SIA security officer (Scotland) exam at a glance
DetailWhat the specification says
Who needs itAnyone applying for a first SIA security guard licence needs a licence-linked qualification. In Scotland GOV.UK gives it as the Award for Security Officers in the Private Security Industry (Scotland) at SCQF Level 6. Training and assessment follow the SIA’s Get Training requirements. The SIA’s Get Training document gives the Scottish awards as ‘at SCQF Level 5’ in its Annex B, while GOV.UK and Highfield call them ‘at SCQF Level 6’. We use the GOV.UK and Highfield wording.
FormatThree externally set multiple-choice papers, one per knowledge unit, plus practical assessments (an incident evidential statement, searching, communication devices and a conflict scenario) marked by the training centre. The SIA’s test specification says its rules apply to the units in use in England, Wales, Northern Ireland and Scotland. This pack covers the three multiple-choice papers only.
Unit 1 paperPrinciples of Working in the Private Security Industry: 72 questions, 110 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (50 of 72). This is the same unit as in the door supervisor qualification.
Unit 2 paperPrinciples of Working as a Security Officer in the Private Security Industry: 60 questions, 90 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (42 of 60)
Unit 3 paperApplication of Conflict Management in the Private Security Industry: 20 questions, 30 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (14 of 20); the practical scenario is assessed separately
Contact timeThe SIA’s Annex B for Scotland gives 38 hours of learning and assessment with a minimum of 30 contact hours (at least 4 days) for the three units; Highfield gives total qualification time of 42 hours.
Who sets the papersThe SIA sets the requirements. Papers are set and marked by the awarding organisation your training centre uses (see GOV.UK, Teaching SIA licence-linked training courses, for the SIA’s current list of approved awarding organisations; the SIA does not accept qualifications awarded by BIIAB on or after 11 August 2026). GOV.UK lists Highfield Qualifications as awarding organisation for the current Scottish award. Check which one your centre uses, because question counts and times can vary slightly.
Law coveredScotland. Arrest, use of force, breach of the peace, threatening or abusive behaviour, weapons, damage, sexual offences, licensing (Licensing (Scotland) Act 2005), fire safety (Fire (Scotland) Act 2005) and the courts and police are Scots law and were written from Scottish sources. The Private Security Industry Act 2001, Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, Equality Act 2010 and Human Rights Act 1998 apply across Scotland too, and the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 applies in Great Britain. England and Wales and Northern Ireland law are not covered.
Changes comingThe SIA consulted on new specifications from 28 August to 23 October 2026 and says final specifications will follow in winter 2026, with new qualifications later in 2027. The questions follow the current specifications (February 2021), which apply until the SIA says otherwise.
A man in a dark jumper holds a small torch and rests a hand on a fire-exit bar in an office corridor.
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How the quiz works

Read each question and decide on A, B, C or D. Then open Show the answer under it. There is no score, so keep your own tally. Aim for at least 18 out of 25 (70 per cent), which is the pass mark for all three papers.

Abbreviations used: SIA means Security Industry Authority, COPFS means the Crown Office and Procurator Fiscal Service, SCQF means the Scottish Credit and Qualifications Framework, PACE means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (England and Wales), RIDDOR means the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2013, CCTV means closed-circuit television, PPE means personal protective equipment, BWC means body worn camera, HSE means the Health and Safety Executive, ASCONE is a method for suspected theft (Approach, Select, Conceal, Observe, Non-payment, Exit), and ID means identification.

The 25 questions

Question 1

Which of these is a function the Private Security Industry Act 2001 gives to the SIA?

  1. To prosecute every criminal offence committed in or near licensed premises in Scotland
  2. To employ and deploy security operatives to licensed venues on behalf of the Home Office and councils
  3. To set or approve standards of conduct, training and supervision for the security industry
  4. To grant premises licences for the sale of alcohol and regulated entertainment in each area
Show the answer

Answer C. To set or approve standards of conduct, training and supervision for the security industry

Section 1(2)(e) lists setting or approving standards of conduct, training and supervision. The SIA licenses individuals; Licensing Boards grant premises licences.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 s.1(2)(e).

Question 2

Which of these is a protected characteristic under the Equality Act 2010?

  1. Gender reassignment
  2. Previous criminal record
  3. Current employment status
  4. Football team they support
Show the answer

Answer A. Gender reassignment

Section 4 lists age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage and civil partnership, pregnancy and maternity, race, religion or belief, sex and sexual orientation.

Relies on: Equality Act 2010 s.4.

Question 3

A person does licensable security work in Scotland without an SIA licence. What is the maximum penalty on summary conviction under the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

  1. Up to six months in prison, a fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (£5,000), or both
  2. A fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (£5,000), with no prison sentence available
  3. Up to six months in prison, a fine up to level 3 on the standard scale (£1,000), or both
  4. Up to twelve months in prison, a fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (£5,000), or both
Show the answer

Answer A. Up to six months in prison, a fine up to level 5 on the standard scale (£5,000), or both

Section 3(6) sets six months, a level 5 fine, or both. The Act extends to Scotland, where level 5 on the standard scale is £5,000 and level 3 is £1,000.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 s.3(1) and (6); Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 s.225(2).

Question 4

In Scotland, who decides whether a person is prosecuted for a crime reported by the police?

  1. The chief constable of Police Scotland, once the officer who investigated has finished writing the report
  2. The local Licensing Board, which receives a copy of every police report about a crime in licensed premises
  3. The venue owner or premises manager who first reported the incident to the police on the night
  4. The procurator fiscal at COPFS, who decides independently and in the public interest
Show the answer

Answer D. The procurator fiscal at COPFS, who decides independently and in the public interest

COPFS receives reports about crimes from the police and other agencies and decides what action to take, including whether to prosecute. It makes its decisions independently and in the public interest.

Relies on: Crown Office and Procurator Fiscal Service (COPFS), “Our role in the justice process”; COPFS, “Words and meanings” (procurator fiscal).

Question 5

Which Act set up the single Police Service of Scotland?

  1. The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012
  2. The Police, Public Order and Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act 2006
  3. The Police (Scotland) Act 1967
  4. The Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010
Show the answer

Answer A. The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012

Section 6 of the 2012 Act says there is to be a constabulary known as the Police Service of Scotland. Section 1 set up the Scottish Police Authority.

Relies on: Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 ss.1 and 6.

Question 6

A colleague trained in England says a security operative may arrest anyone committing an indictable offence under section 24A of PACE. What is the position in Scotland?

  1. Section 24A applies in England and Wales only; in Scotland a private person’s arrest power rests on common law
  2. Scots law gives no power of arrest to anyone who is not a constable, however serious the crime that is being committed
  3. Section 24A applies across the whole United Kingdom, so the same arrest power exists for security operatives in Scotland
  4. Scots law gives a licensed security operative the same powers of arrest as a police constable, once they show their SIA licence
Show the answer

Answer A. Section 24A applies in England and Wales only; in Scotland a private person’s arrest power rests on common law

Section 24A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 is marked as applying to England and Wales. Citizens Advice Scotland says private citizens have some common law powers of arrest, to be used with great care.

Relies on: Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 s.24A (extent E+W, legislation.gov.uk); Citizens Advice Scotland, “If you are arrested and held in custody by the police in Scotland”.

Question 7

Which duty does section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 place on an employer?

  1. To guarantee, whatever the cost, that no accident or injury of any kind will ever happen to any employee at work
  2. To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of their employees
  3. To pay for the private medical care of every employee, including for conditions not caused by work
  4. To ensure that customers and visitors are never injured on the premises, whatever the cause
Show the answer

Answer B. To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of their employees

Section 2(1) sets the duty “so far as is reasonably practicable”. Section 3 separately protects people who are not employees.

Relies on: Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 s.2(1).

Question 8

Under section 53 of the Fire (Scotland) Act 2005, what must each employer do about the risk of fire in the workplace?

  1. Ask the council to inspect the workplace for fire risks and report back to the employer every year
  2. Carry out an assessment of fire risks to employees and take the fire safety measures needed
  3. Appoint a fire marshal who has been approved by the Scottish Fire and Rescue Service in writing
  4. Install a sprinkler system in every workplace, whatever the size of the building and the risk
Show the answer

Answer B. Carry out an assessment of fire risks to employees and take the fire safety measures needed

Section 53 requires an employer to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, employees’ safety from fire, to assess the workplace for fire risks, and to take the fire safety measures needed.

Relies on: Fire (Scotland) Act 2005 s.53(1) and (2).

Question 9

How many jurors hear a solemn case in the High Court or in the sheriff court in Scotland?

  1. 7 jurors
  2. 9 jurors
  3. 12 jurors
  4. 15 jurors
Show the answer

Answer D. 15 jurors

COPFS describes a solemn case as a serious criminal case heard before a judge and a jury of 15 in the High Court, or a sheriff and a jury of 15 in the sheriff court.

Relies on: COPFS, “Words and meanings” (solemn case).

Question 10

What does corroboration mean in Scots criminal law?

  1. Evidence from two separate sources that a crime happened and that the accused did it
  2. The police officer’s written agreement that the arrest of the accused person was lawful
  3. A second prosecutor’s check of the first prosecutor’s decision to take the case to court
  4. A signed statement from the victim confirming that they want the accused person to be prosecuted
Show the answer

Answer A. Evidence from two separate sources that a crime happened and that the accused did it

COPFS says an accused person cannot be convicted in Scotland unless there is evidence from at least two separate sources. That is why witness details, CCTV and accurate records can matter.

Relies on: COPFS, “Words and meanings” (corroboration).

Question 11

Which UK threat level means an attack is highly likely in the near future?

  1. Moderate
  2. Substantial
  3. Severe
  4. Critical
Show the answer

Answer D. Critical

Critical is the highest level. The levels run low, moderate, substantial, severe and critical.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Terrorism and national emergencies, https://www.gov.uk/terrorism-national-emergency.

Question 12

Under COPFS guidance on sexual offences, what is the legal position of a person who is incapable because of alcohol or drugs?

  1. The law states that they are not able to consent
  2. They can consent if they seemed to agree at the time
  3. They can consent if they say they feel fine to a member of staff
  4. They can consent if a friend agrees on their behalf
Show the answer

Answer A. The law states that they are not able to consent

COPFS says that if a person is asleep or unconscious, or incapable because of the effects of alcohol or drugs, the law states that they are not able to consent. This matters when staff see a very drunk person leaving with someone.

Relies on: COPFS, “Sexual offences” (consent).

Question 13

Which of these is an element of the offence of threatening or abusive behaviour in section 38 of the Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010?

  1. The behaviour must take place in a public place in front of at least two independent witnesses
  2. The behaviour must have been repeated on at least three separate occasions in one night
  3. The behaviour must have caused physical injury to another person who needed medical treatment
  4. The behaviour would be likely to cause a reasonable person to suffer fear or alarm
Show the answer

Answer D. The behaviour would be likely to cause a reasonable person to suffer fear or alarm

The behaviour must be threatening or abusive and likely to cause a reasonable person fear or alarm. It can be words or actions, and a single act or a course of conduct.

Relies on: Criminal Justice and Licensing (Scotland) Act 2010 s.38(1) and (3).

Question 14

Which description best fits breach of the peace in Scots law?

  1. A civil wrong for which the victim can claim compensation but which the Crown cannot prosecute at all
  2. A statutory offence that can be committed only on licensed premises, and only after the end of the licensed hours
  3. A common-law crime of conduct severe enough to alarm ordinary people and threaten serious disturbance to the community
  4. Any behaviour that annoys a member of staff, whether or not other people nearby are affected by it
Show the answer

Answer C. A common-law crime of conduct severe enough to alarm ordinary people and threaten serious disturbance to the community

The High Court of Justiciary (five judges) held that the test in Smith v Donnelly is conjunctive: conduct genuinely alarming to a reasonable person that threatens serious disturbance to the community.

Relies on: Harris v HM Advocate [2009] HCJAC 80, paras [13] and [15] (Scottish Courts and Tribunals Service).

Question 15

Which of these activities falls within manned guarding under paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

  1. Preparing accounts and payroll records for a security company’s directors
  2. Driving a van to deliver parcels to customers across the local area
  3. Repairing and replacing a customer’s door locks at their home after a break-in
  4. Guarding property against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken
Show the answer

Answer D. Guarding property against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken

Paragraph 2(1)(b) covers guarding property against destruction or damage, against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained. Paragraph 2(1)(a) covers guarding premises.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 Sch. 2 para. 2(1).

Question 16

An inspector appointed under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 asks to enter a workplace. Which statement is correct?

  1. The inspector never needs to show any proof of appointment, even if the employer asks
  2. The inspector may enter only after giving the employer a month’s notice in writing, unless the employer agrees to less
  3. The inspector may enter only with the written consent of every worker on the premises
  4. The inspector may enter at any reasonable time and must produce their instrument of appointment if required
Show the answer

Answer D. The inspector may enter at any reasonable time and must produce their instrument of appointment if required

Section 20(2)(a) gives inspectors the power to enter premises at any reasonable time. Section 19(4) requires them to produce their instrument of appointment if asked.

Relies on: Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 ss.19(4) and 20(2)(a).

Question 17

Under regulation 4 of the Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations 1992, what must an employer do?

  1. Require workers to buy their own PPE from the employer’s approved supplier, unless they are on a short-term or temporary contract of under three months
  2. Provide PPE only to managers and supervisors, unless the employer decides that the risk is not worth the cost involved
  3. Ensure suitable PPE is provided to workers who may be exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other equally effective means
  4. Provide PPE only when a worker has asked for it in writing on three separate occasions, unless a manager has agreed
Show the answer

Answer C. Ensure suitable PPE is provided to workers who may be exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other equally effective means

Regulation 4(1) requires suitable PPE for workers exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other means that are equally or more effective.

Relies on: Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations 1992 reg. 4(1).

Question 18

Under section 5 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, what is an offence?

  1. Having a controlled drug in your possession without lawful authority
  2. Locking a store room where cleaning products are kept
  3. Wearing gloves to protect against injury in a search
  4. Telling a colleague about drug litter found on site
Show the answer

Answer A. Having a controlled drug in your possession without lawful authority

Section 5(1) and (2) make possession of a controlled drug an offence unless regulations allow it. Section 5(3) separately covers possession with intent to supply.

Relies on: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 s.5(1)-(3).

Question 19

On what basis may a security officer usually search someone?

  1. Because a site manager has told them to do so, whether or not the person has agreed to it
  2. With the person’s permission, as part of the site’s admissions policy or conditions of entry or the employee’s contract
  3. Because they hold an SIA licence, which gives a legal power to search anyone on a site
  4. By force, whenever the officer believes that the person may be carrying something prohibited
Show the answer

Answer B. With the person’s permission, as part of the site’s admissions policy or conditions of entry or the employee’s contract

A security officer has no general legal power to search. Searching depends on permission, usually through a condition of entry, the admissions policy or an employment contract.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 20

A person is found with a knife in a public place in Scotland. Which article is outside the offence in section 49 of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 of having a bladed or pointed article in a public place?

  1. A folding pocketknife whose blade has a cutting edge of four inches (10.16 centimetres)
  2. A folding pocketknife with a cutting edge of no more than three inches (7.62 cm)
  3. A kitchen knife that has been wrapped up carefully in a bag so that it cannot be seen
  4. A fixed-blade hunting knife whose blade has a cutting edge of no more than three inches (7.62 cm)
Show the answer

Answer B. A folding pocketknife with a cutting edge of no more than three inches (7.62 cm)

Section 49(3) excludes only a folding pocketknife whose cutting edge does not exceed three inches. Whether an item breaks site rules is a separate question: follow the assignment instructions and record the find.

Relies on: Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 s.49(2), (3), (4) and (5).

Question 21

What does ASCONE stand for in the context of suspected theft?

  1. Arrest, Search, Confront, Observe, Notify, Escort
  2. Approach, Speak, Check, Observe, Notify, Exit
  3. Alert, Stop, Contain, Observe, Notify, Escort
  4. Approach, Select, Conceal, Observe, Non-payment, Exit
Show the answer

Answer D. Approach, Select, Conceal, Observe, Non-payment, Exit

ASCONE is a method used for suspected theft: the person approaches the goods, selects and conceals them, is observed throughout, does not pay and exits.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 7.7 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 22

A person wilfully damages the site fence without reasonable excuse. Which statutory offence in Scots law fits this?

  1. Criminal damage, under the Criminal Damage Act 1971 that applies in England and Wales
  2. Robbery, which involves using force or threats in order to take property
  3. Vandalism, under section 52 of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995
  4. Housebreaking, which involves breaking into a building in order to steal from it
Show the answer

Answer C. Vandalism, under section 52 of the Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995

Section 52(1) makes it an offence, without reasonable excuse, wilfully or recklessly to destroy or damage property belonging to another. The Criminal Damage Act 1971 is an England and Wales Act.

Relies on: Criminal Law (Consolidation) (Scotland) Act 1995 s.52(1).

Question 23

When does Police Scotland say to call 999?

  1. Whenever a visitor is refused entry to the site and is arguing with the officer at the gate
  2. When someone is in danger, you need help now, or a serious incident is happening or about to happen
  3. To ask for a copy of a crime report so that the site can keep it with its own records
  4. To ask for an update on a crime report that was made by phone to the police last week
Show the answer

Answer B. When someone is in danger, you need help now, or a serious incident is happening or about to happen

Its public advice also says not to go near the suspects or try to stop them, and to keep yourself safe. Non-urgent matters go to 101.

Relies on: Police Scotland, “Contact us” (if it’s an emergency).

Question 24

What does the “fight or flight” response involve?

  1. A calm decision to negotiate, driven by logic, where a person weighs up every option before they act
  2. A reaction to boredom driven by tiredness, where a person may fall asleep or leave without a word
  3. A reaction to fear driven by adrenaline, where a person may attack or try to escape
  4. A planned strategy to win an argument, driven by pride, where a person chooses whether to talk or to shout
Show the answer

Answer C. A reaction to fear driven by adrenaline, where a person may attack or try to escape

Fear, adrenaline and shock trigger fight or flight. People who feel blocked in may respond more aggressively.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 2.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 25

Which of these is a good first step in de-escalating a situation?

  1. Assess the person’s emotional state and identify the trigger
  2. Immediately call the police for every disagreement
  3. Argue back firmly until they stop talking or leave
  4. Ignore the person completely until they stop shouting
Show the answer

Answer A. Assess the person’s emotional state and identify the trigger

De-escalation starts with understanding the emotional state and what triggered it, then reassuring and listening.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 2.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Want more practice?

The SIA security officer question bank for Scotland has all 331 questions, not only these 25, with answers and notes in PDF and a timed self-marking mock paper for each of the three units. It is the Scotland version, with Scots law where it differs. If you are training in England or Wales, use the England and Wales security officer practice test and the England and Wales question bank instead.

Sources

All sources were last checked on 8 November 2026.

Changes to this guide

  • 9 November 2026: First published. Questions checked against the sources listed above. GOV.UK’s SIA training pages were re-read on 9 November 2026 and had not changed.

This guide is general information written from the official sources listed above and checked on 9 November 2026. It is not legal, tax or financial advice, and Plainfiles is not endorsed by any government body. Rules change, so check the linked official pages for your own situation. Written and designed by Plainfiles with the help of artificial intelligence (AI) tools, then checked against the official legislation and guidance listed in the sources. How we write and check our guides.