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SIA security officer practice test: 25 free questions

Try 25 original questions across the three security officer knowledge papers before your course exams. Choose an answer, then open the explanation to see the correct one and the law or guidance behind it.

Reviewed by Liam Humphreys on · Last updated · Last checked · About 4,266 words · How this guide was made, including our use of AI

Practice questions, not the real exam

These questions are original. They were written from the public SIA test specification and the legislation, not copied from any awarding body, past paper or app. This guide is not from or endorsed by the Security Industry Authority (SIA) or any awarding body. The real papers are set by an awarding body and will word things differently. The questions cover the law of England and Wales only. The law changes, so check the sources at the end before you rely on an answer. This is not legal advice.

About the SIA security officer exam

The SIA security officer exam at a glance
DetailWhat the specification says
Who needs itAnyone applying for a first SIA security guard licence needs a licence-linked qualification, the Level 2 Award for Security Officers in the Private Security Industry. Training and assessment follow the SIA’s Get Training requirements.
FormatThree externally set multiple-choice papers, one per knowledge unit, plus practical assessments (an incident evidential statement, searching, communication devices and a conflict scenario) marked by the training centre. This pack covers the three multiple-choice papers only.
Unit 1 paperPrinciples of Working in the Private Security Industry: 72 questions, 110 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (50 of 72). This is the same unit as in the door supervisor qualification.
Unit 2 paperPrinciples of Working as a Security Officer in the Private Security Industry: 60 questions, 90 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (42 of 60)
Unit 3 paperApplication of Conflict Management in the Private Security Industry: 20 questions, 30 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (14 of 20); the practical scenario is assessed separately
Who sets the papersThe SIA sets the requirements. Papers are set and marked by the awarding organisation your training centre uses (the SIA’s current list is Highfield, Laser, NOCN, Pearson, Qualifications Network (QNUK) and SFJ Awards; the SIA does not accept qualifications awarded by BIIAB from 11 August 2026). Check which one your centre uses, because question counts and times can vary slightly.
Law coveredEngland and Wales. Scotland and Northern Ireland have different arrest, licensing and drug law; the SIA qualifications adapt that content for those nations, and this guide does not. The questions here cover the law of England and Wales only.
Changes comingThe SIA consulted on new specifications from 28 August to 23 October 2026 and says final specifications will follow in winter 2026, with new qualifications later in 2027. The questions follow the current specifications (February 2021), which apply until the SIA says otherwise.

How the quiz works

Read each question and decide on A, B, C or D. Then open Show the answer under it. There is no score, so keep your own tally. Aim for at least 18 out of 25 (70 per cent), which is the pass mark for all three papers.

Abbreviations used: SIA means Security Industry Authority, PACE means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, RIDDOR means the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2013, CCTV means closed-circuit television, PPE means personal protective equipment, BWC means body worn camera, HSE means the Health and Safety Executive, ASCONE is a method for suspected theft (Approach, Select, Conceal, Observe, Non-payment, Exit), and ID means identification.

The 25 questions

Question 1

Which of these is a function the Private Security Industry Act 2001 gives to the SIA?

  1. To grant premises licences for the sale of alcohol and regulated entertainment in each area
  2. To set or approve standards of conduct, training and supervision for the security industry
  3. To employ and deploy security operatives to licensed venues on behalf of the Home Office and councils
  4. To prosecute every criminal offence committed in or near licensed premises in England and Wales
Show the answer

Answer B. To set or approve standards of conduct, training and supervision for the security industry

Section 1(2)(e) lists setting or approving standards of conduct, training and supervision. The SIA licenses individuals; councils grant premises licences.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 s.1(2)(e).

Question 2

When making an arrest, what should the person arrested be told?

  1. That they have been found guilty and will be charged by the police
  2. That they are under arrest and the reason, and that the police will be called
  3. Only that they must leave the venue and may not come back that night
  4. Nothing until the police arrive, so that the person does not become upset or try to leave
Show the answer

Answer B. That they are under arrest and the reason, and that the police will be called

Article 5(2) of the Convention requires anyone arrested to be told promptly, in a language they understand, the reasons for their arrest.

Relies on: Human Rights Act 1998 Sch. 1, Art. 5(2); Unit 1 AC 3.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 3

Under section 76 of the Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008, how is force treated if it is disproportionate in the circumstances as the person believed them to be?

  1. It is reasonable if a supervisor ordered it
  2. It is not to be regarded as reasonable
  3. It is always reasonable if the person was frightened
  4. It is reasonable if the victim is an adult
Show the answer

Answer B. It is not to be regarded as reasonable

Section 76(6) says force that is disproportionate in the circumstances as the person believed them to be is not to be regarded as reasonable (apart from householder cases).

Relies on: Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008 s.76(6).

Question 4

Which duty does section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 place on an employer?

  1. To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of their employees
  2. To ensure that customers and visitors are never injured on the premises, whatever the cause
  3. To guarantee, whatever the cost, that no accident or injury of any kind will ever happen to any employee at work
  4. To pay for the private medical care of every employee, including for conditions not caused by work
Show the answer

Answer A. To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of their employees

Section 2(1) sets the duty “so far as is reasonably practicable”. Section 3 separately protects people who are not employees.

Relies on: Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 s.2(1).

Question 5

Under the Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order 2005, who must carry out a fire risk assessment of a workplace?

  1. The fire brigade
  2. The responsible person
  3. The nearest customer
  4. The local police
Show the answer

Answer B. The responsible person

Article 9 requires the responsible person to make a suitable and sufficient assessment of the risks. In a workplace, the responsible person is the employer if the workplace is under their control (article 3).

Relies on: Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order 2005 arts.3 and 9.

Question 6

Which UK threat level means an attack is highly likely in the near future?

  1. Critical
  2. Moderate
  3. Severe
  4. Substantial
Show the answer

Answer A. Critical

Critical is the highest level. The levels run low, moderate, substantial, severe and critical.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Terrorism and national emergencies, https://www.gov.uk/terrorism-national-emergency.

Question 7

In the police advice “Run, Hide, Tell”, what does “Tell” mean?

  1. Tell the press and local radio what has happened so the public can be warned
  2. Call 999 when it is safe to do so and give the police the information they need
  3. Tell the attacker to stop and put down any weapon before the police have to be called
  4. Tell customers to stay where they are and wait for the attacker to leave
Show the answer

Answer B. Call 999 when it is safe to do so and give the police the information they need

The advice is to run if there is a safe route, hide if not, and tell the police by calling 999 when it is safe, giving location, descriptions and what has happened.

Relies on: NaCTSO, Stay Safe: Run Hide Tell (GOV.UK, withdrawn 2022; now ProtectUK); Unit 1 AC 9.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 8

Which of these activities falls within manned guarding under paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

  1. Driving a van to deliver parcels to customers across the local area
  2. Guarding property against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken
  3. Preparing accounts and payroll records for a security company’s directors
  4. Repairing and replacing a customer’s door locks at their home after a break-in
Show the answer

Answer B. Guarding property against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken

Paragraph 2(1)(b) covers guarding property against destruction or damage, against being stolen or otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained. Paragraph 2(1)(a) covers guarding premises.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 Sch. 2 para. 2(1).

Question 9

Which of these is a main responsibility of a security officer?

  1. To protect life and property and to prevent and deter crime
  2. To decide which laws apply to people on the site
  3. To replace the emergency services at serious incidents
  4. To set the rates of pay and holiday for the site’s staff
Show the answer

Answer A. To protect life and property and to prevent and deter crime

The unit content lists protecting life, preventing and deterring crime, preventing loss, protecting property and assets and responding to incidents and emergencies.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 1.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 10

An inspector appointed under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 asks to enter a workplace. Which statement is correct?

  1. The inspector may enter only with the written consent of every worker on the premises
  2. The inspector never needs to show any proof of appointment, even if the employer asks
  3. The inspector may enter only after giving the employer a month’s notice in writing, unless the employer agrees to less
  4. The inspector may enter at any reasonable time and must produce their instrument of appointment if required
Show the answer

Answer D. The inspector may enter at any reasonable time and must produce their instrument of appointment if required

Section 20(2)(a) gives inspectors the power to enter premises at any reasonable time. Section 19(4) requires them to produce their instrument of appointment if asked.

Relies on: Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 ss.19(4) and 20(2)(a).

Question 11

What is “tailgating” at an access point?

  1. Leaving a gate unlocked on purpose so that a colleague can come back in without a pass
  2. Patrolling the same route twice in one hour so that the pattern becomes predictable
  3. Driving too close to the vehicle in front while waiting at a barrier, so that a collision becomes likely
  4. Following an authorised person through a door or gate without using your own pass or code
Show the answer

Answer D. Following an authorised person through a door or gate without using your own pass or code

Tailgating means entering with, or just behind, an authorised person so that the access control is bypassed.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 2.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 12

A fire alarm activates and the panel confirms a genuine fire. What should the security officer do?

  1. Ask visitors to stay in the building until the fire has been put out by the staff
  2. Start the official fire evacuation process, including calling the emergency services
  3. Wait for the alarm to stop and then phone the control room to ask whether it was a real fire
  4. Reset the panel and carry on with the patrol until the fire alarm company has been contacted
Show the answer

Answer B. Start the official fire evacuation process, including calling the emergency services

If a fire alarm activation is genuine, the officer follows the site’s fire evacuation process and ensures the emergency services are called.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 3.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 13

Under regulation 4 of the Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations 1992, what must an employer do?

  1. Require workers to buy their own PPE from the employer’s approved supplier, unless they are on a short-term or temporary contract of under three months
  2. Provide PPE only to managers and supervisors, unless the employer decides that the risk is not worth the cost involved
  3. Provide PPE only when a worker has asked for it in writing on three separate occasions, unless a manager has agreed
  4. Ensure suitable PPE is provided to workers who may be exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other equally effective means
Show the answer

Answer D. Ensure suitable PPE is provided to workers who may be exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other equally effective means

Regulation 4(1) requires suitable PPE for workers exposed to a risk, unless the risk is adequately controlled by other means that are equally or more effective.

Relies on: Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations 1992 reg. 4(1).

Question 14

Why is it risky to ignore personal safety in a conflict situation?

  1. It gives the officer extra legal powers to use force, as the person is then treated as a threat
  2. It always calms the other person down, as they feel that the officer is relaxed and in control of the situation
  3. It increases the risk of escalation, violence or injury, and the officer may be seen as negligent
  4. It removes the need for a risk assessment, so the officer can respond more quickly to what happens
Show the answer

Answer C. It increases the risk of escalation, violence or injury, and the officer may be seen as negligent

Ignoring personal safety increases the risk of escalation and violence or injury to self and others, and an officer may be considered negligent for any resulting harm.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 4.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 15

Under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which of these is an offence?

  1. Reading a newspaper article about the supply of controlled drugs in the local area and sharing it with colleagues
  2. Calling the police to report drug litter found in a car park that the officer is patrolling
  3. Being the occupier or concerned in the management of premises and knowingly permitting the supply of a controlled drug there
  4. Being an employee who tells the police that a controlled drug is being supplied on the premises
Show the answer

Answer C. Being the occupier or concerned in the management of premises and knowingly permitting the supply of a controlled drug there

Section 8 makes it an offence for an occupier, or a person concerned in the management of premises, knowingly to permit or suffer the production or supply of controlled drugs there.

Relies on: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 s.8.

Question 16

What is a “random” search?

  1. A search of only one named person, chosen because of a specific tip-off the officer has received
  2. A search of every person entering or leaving, for example at the start and end of each shift
  3. A search of one named vehicle, chosen because the driver was acting suspiciously on arrival
  4. A search of a random selection of people, for example every fourth person
Show the answer

Answer D. A search of a random selection of people, for example every fourth person

A general search covers everyone. A random search covers a random selection, such as every fourth person. A specific search is for specific people or vehicles for specific reasons.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.1 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 17

On what basis may a security officer usually search someone?

  1. Because they hold an SIA licence, which gives a legal power to search anyone on a site
  2. With the person’s permission, as part of the site’s admissions policy or conditions of entry or the employee’s contract
  3. By force, whenever the officer believes that the person may be carrying something prohibited
  4. Because a site manager has told them to do so, whether or not the person has agreed to it
Show the answer

Answer B. With the person’s permission, as part of the site’s admissions policy or conditions of entry or the employee’s contract

A security officer has no general legal power to search. Searching depends on permission, usually through a condition of entry, the admissions policy or an employment contract.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 18

Before starting to search a person, what must a security officer do?

  1. Search from behind and say nothing until the search is done
  2. Begin the search without speaking, to save time at the gate
  3. Take the person’s bag without comment and look inside it
  4. Explain the search policy and obtain the person’s permission
Show the answer

Answer D. Explain the search policy and obtain the person’s permission

The officer should use signage, explain the search policy, obtain the person’s permission, and follow the site policy and assignment instructions.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.7 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 19

Which of these is a protected characteristic under section 4 of the Equality Act 2010 that an officer must consider when searching?

  1. Which football team they support
  2. Whether a person owns a car
  3. Their weekly level of income
  4. Pregnancy and maternity
Show the answer

Answer D. Pregnancy and maternity

The protected characteristics are age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage and civil partnership, pregnancy and maternity, race, religion or belief, sex and sexual orientation.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.7 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023); Equality Act 2010 s.4.

Question 20

What is the purpose of a check call?

  1. To let the control room know which music the officer prefers to listen to during a quiet patrol
  2. To replace the patrol, so that the officer can stay in one place and report that the site is secure
  3. To order lunch and arrange the officer’s breaks with colleagues, away from the control room
  4. To maintain contact with the control room, contribute to the officer’s safety and confirm radio systems are working
Show the answer

Answer D. To maintain contact with the control room, contribute to the officer’s safety and confirm radio systems are working

Check calls maintain contact, contribute to the officer’s safety, check that radio systems are working and identify areas of poor radio transmission.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 7.6 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 21

What is the first step of the five-step appeal to a trespasser?

  1. Telephone their family
  2. Remove them by force
  3. Call the fire brigade
  4. Ask them to leave
Show the answer

Answer D. Ask them to leave

The steps are: ask them to leave, explain why, inform them of the possible consequences, make a final request and confirm they refuse, then take action using reasonable force if needed.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 7.7 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for Security Officers specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 22

Which of these shows the usual stages of escalation in a conflict?

  1. Anger, frustration, violence, then aggression
  2. Violence, aggression, anger, then frustration
  3. Frustration, anger, aggression, then violence
  4. Aggression, frustration, violence, and finally anger
Show the answer

Answer C. Frustration, anger, aggression, then violence

Conflict commonly escalates from frustration to anger, then aggression and finally violence. Acting early, at the frustration stage, is the best chance to de-escalate.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 1.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 23

What does the “fight or flight” response involve?

  1. A planned strategy to win an argument, driven by pride, where a person chooses whether to talk or to shout
  2. A reaction to fear driven by adrenaline, where a person may attack or try to escape
  3. A calm decision to negotiate, driven by logic, where a person weighs up every option before they act
  4. A reaction to boredom driven by tiredness, where a person may fall asleep or leave without a word
Show the answer

Answer B. A reaction to fear driven by adrenaline, where a person may attack or try to escape

Fear, adrenaline and shock trigger fight or flight. People who feel blocked in may respond more aggressively.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 2.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 24

Which of these is a stage in de-escalating conflict?

  1. Walk away without a word, then wait for the person to come back and apologise
  2. Assess the person’s emotional state, then reassure, listen and problem solve
  3. Order the person to calm down, then warn them, threaten ejection and ignore their replies
  4. Argue the point, then insist, repeat the rule and prove the customer is wrong
Show the answer

Answer B. Assess the person’s emotional state, then reassure, listen and problem solve

Stages include assessing the emotional state, identifying trigger factors, reassuring to reduce anxiety, speaking calmly, listening and empathising, solving the problem, and explaining what happens next.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 2.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 25

What does it mean to show empathy in a conflict?

  1. To agree with everything they say and promise them whatever they ask for, so that they stop complaining quickly
  2. To give in to any demand they make and drop the rules, so that the person feels they have won the argument
  3. To understand and share the other person’s feelings and see the situation from their point of view
  4. To show no feeling at all and treat the person as a problem to be solved as quickly as possible
Show the answer

Answer C. To understand and share the other person’s feelings and see the situation from their point of view

Empathy means imagining being in the person’s situation. It helps build rapport without giving up the rules.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 3.1 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Want more practice?

A bank of 312 questions in the same style, as a printable PDF with answers and as a self-marking file that works offline, is on sale as the question bank for £19, with every answer explained and its source given.

Sources

All sources were last checked on 24 October 2026.

Changes to this guide

  • 24 October 2026: Draft written. Questions checked against the sources listed above.

This guide is general information written from the official sources listed above and checked on 24 October 2026. It is not legal, tax or financial advice, and Plainfiles is not endorsed by any government body. Rules change, so check the linked official pages for your own situation. Written and designed by Plainfiles with the help of artificial intelligence (AI) tools, then checked against the official legislation and guidance listed in the sources. How we write and check our guides.