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SIA CCTV operator practice test: 25 free questions

Try 25 original questions across the two CCTV operator knowledge papers before your course exams. Choose an answer, then open the explanation to see the correct one and the law or guidance behind it.

Reviewed by Liam Humphreys on · Last updated · Last checked · About 4,188 words · How this guide was made, including our use of AI

Practice questions, not the real exam

These questions are original. They were written from the public SIA test specification and the legislation, not copied from any awarding body, past paper or app. This guide is not from or endorsed by the Security Industry Authority (SIA) or any awarding body. The real papers are set by an awarding body and will word things differently. The questions cover the law of England and Wales only. The law changes, so check the sources at the end before you rely on an answer. This is not legal advice.

About the SIA CCTV operator exam

The SIA CCTV operator exam at a glance
DetailWhat the specification says
Who needs itAnyone applying for a first SIA public space surveillance (CCTV) licence needs a licence-linked qualification, the Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators (Public Space Surveillance) in the Private Security Industry. Training and assessment follow the SIA’s Get Training requirements.
FormatTwo externally set multiple-choice papers, one per knowledge unit, plus practical assessments (an incident evidential statement, then a practical CCTV scenario with a portfolio and an externally set workbook) marked by the training centre. This pack covers the two multiple-choice papers only. There is no conflict management unit in this qualification.
Unit 1 paperPrinciples of Working in the Private Security Industry: 72 questions, 110 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (50 of 72). This is the same unit as in the door supervisor and security officer qualifications.
Unit 2 paperPrinciples and Practices of Working as a CCTV Operator in the Private Security Industry: 40 questions, 60 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (28 of 40). The practical scenario and the workbook (short answers, pass mark 80 per cent) are assessed separately.
Who sets the papersThe SIA sets the requirements. Papers are set and marked by the awarding organisation your training centre uses (the SIA’s current list is Highfield, Laser, NOCN, Pearson, Qualifications Network (QNUK) and SFJ Awards; the SIA does not accept qualifications awarded by BIIAB from 11 August 2026). Check which one your centre uses, because question counts and times can vary slightly.
Law coveredEngland and Wales. Scotland and Northern Ireland have different law; the SIA qualifications adapt the content for those nations, and this guide does not. The Freedom of Information Act 2000 applies in England and Wales; Scotland has its own Act. The questions here cover the law of England and Wales only.
Changes comingThe SIA consulted on new specifications from 28 August to 23 October 2026 and says final specifications will follow in winter 2026, with new qualifications later in 2027. The questions follow the current specifications (February 2021), which apply until the SIA says otherwise.

How the quiz works

Read each question and decide on A, B, C or D. Then open Show the answer under it. There is no score, so keep your own tally. Aim for at least 18 out of 25 (70 per cent), which is the pass mark for both papers.

Abbreviations used: SIA means Security Industry Authority, CCTV means closed-circuit television, UK GDPR means the UK General Data Protection Regulation, ICO means the Information Commissioner’s Office, RIPA means the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000, PACE means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, ANPR means automatic number plate recognition, PTZ means pan, tilt and zoom, and UAV means unmanned aerial vehicle.

The 25 questions

Question 1

A venue uses CCTV that records customers. Which of these must it do to meet data protection law?

  1. Record in the toilets and changing areas to deter drug use
  2. Keep the images secure and let only authorised people see them
  3. Share the recordings with anyone who asks for them
  4. Keep all recordings for ever in case they are needed
Show the answer

Answer B. Keep the images secure and let only authorised people see them

The UK GDPR requires personal data, including CCTV images, to be kept securely and kept no longer than necessary. Access should be limited to authorised staff, and cameras should not record private spaces such as toilets.

Relies on: UK GDPR Art. 5(1)(e) and (f).

Question 2

Which of these is a benefit of CCTV for a security team?

  1. It can provide clear evidence for investigations and court cases
  2. It gives staff the power to detain anyone it records
  3. It guarantees that no crime will happen on the premises
  4. It removes the need for any data protection checks
Show the answer

Answer A. It can provide clear evidence for investigations and court cases

Recordings can help identify offenders and support prosecutions. CCTV does not guarantee safety and does not give staff extra powers.

Relies on: Unit 1 AC 1.6 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 3

Which of these is a limitation of CCTV?

  1. It is never damaged or misused
  2. It is not covered by data protection law
  3. It is not able to record evidence
  4. It cannot by itself stop a crime happening
Show the answer

Answer D. It cannot by itself stop a crime happening

CCTV can deter and record, but it cannot physically prevent crime. It can also be vandalised, misused, expensive, and raise privacy concerns.

Relies on: Unit 1 AC 1.7 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 4

Body-worn camera footage of customers is stored by a venue. Who should be able to view it?

  1. Anyone who posts a request for the footage on social media
  2. Only authorised people, for the purposes it was collected
  3. Any customer who asks to watch the footage for fun or out of interest
  4. Any member of staff who wants to see it, whatever the reason
Show the answer

Answer B. Only authorised people, for the purposes it was collected

Footage of identifiable people is personal data. It must be processed securely, with protection against unauthorised processing.

Relies on: UK GDPR Art. 5(1)(f).

Question 5

What is a hazard, in health and safety terms?

  1. A written record of an accident
  2. The chance that someone will be harmed
  3. A sign that warns of danger
  4. Anything that may cause harm
Show the answer

Answer D. Anything that may cause harm

HSE uses “hazard” for anything that could cause injury or illness, and “risk” for how likely it is that someone could be harmed and how seriously.

Relies on: HSE, Managing risks and risk assessment at work, https://www.hse.gov.uk/simple-health-safety/risk/index.htm.

Question 6

Removing which part of the fire triangle is the idea behind smothering a fire with a fire blanket?

  1. Fuel
  2. Smoke
  3. Oxygen
  4. Water
Show the answer

Answer C. Oxygen

A fire blanket cuts off the supply of oxygen to the fuel. Taking away fuel, heat or oxygen all stop a fire.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Fire safety risk assessment: small and medium places of assembly, Part 1 (fire triangle).

Question 7

Which words spell “TV” using the NATO phonetic alphabet?

  1. Telegraph Victory
  2. Target Victor
  3. Tango Victor
  4. Tango Violet
Show the answer

Answer C. Tango Victor

T is Tango and V is Victor in the NATO phonetic alphabet.

Relies on: NATO phonetic alphabet; Unit 1 AC 7.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 8

A witness statement for criminal proceedings under section 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 must contain a declaration. What does the declaration say?

  1. That it is true to the best of the maker’s knowledge and belief, and that they would be liable to prosecution if they wilfully stated anything they knew to be false or did not believe to be true
  2. That the maker was present for the whole of the incident and has not discussed what happened with any other witness, police officer or member of staff
  3. That the police wrote the statement for the maker, who then checked it and agrees to attend court whenever they are asked to do so
  4. That the maker holds a current SIA licence and has been trained to give accounts of incidents, and that the account was checked by their employer
Show the answer

Answer A. That it is true to the best of the maker’s knowledge and belief, and that they would be liable to prosecution if they wilfully stated anything they knew to be false or did not believe to be true

Section 9(2)(b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1967 requires a statement to be signed and to contain this declaration to be admissible as evidence without the witness attending court.

Relies on: Criminal Justice Act 1967 s.9(2)(a) and (b).

Question 9

What are the “4 Cs” used for suspicious items?

  1. Confirm, Clear, Communicate, Control
  2. Contain, Chase, Catch, Confront
  3. Check, Cover, Collect, Complete
  4. Calm, Collect, Carry, Contact
Show the answer

Answer A. Confirm, Clear, Communicate, Control

Confirm whether the item is suspicious (using HOT), clear the area to a safe distance without touching the item, communicate with the police, and control access so nobody approaches.

Relies on: Unit 1 AC 9.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023); ProtectUK guidance on suspicious items.

Question 10

What is a duty of care?

  1. A right to search any customer and refuse entry without giving a reason
  2. A legal duty to arrest every offender that the operative sees committing a crime
  3. A requirement to work unpaid overtime whenever the venue is short of staff
  4. A moral or legal obligation to ensure the safety or wellbeing of others
Show the answer

Answer D. A moral or legal obligation to ensure the safety or wellbeing of others

Duty of care is the obligation to look after others’ safety or wellbeing. People may not look vulnerable, so best practice is to care for everyone.

Relies on: Unit 1 AC 10.1 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 11

Which SIA licence is needed to use closed circuit television to monitor activities in order to guard people against being assaulted because of the unlawful conduct of others?

  1. A public space surveillance (CCTV) licence
  2. A vehicle immobiliser (clamping) licence
  3. A security guard (manned guarding) licence
  4. A key holding licence from the SIA
Show the answer

Answer A. A public space surveillance (CCTV) licence

A security guard licence does not cover using CCTV to guard premises against disorder or damage or people against assault, including by viewing recorded footage. That needs a CCTV licence.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Find out if you need an SIA licence (updated 29 January 2026).

Question 12

What is “privacy blanking” (privacy masking) used for?

  1. To hide the camera housing from view so it cannot be vandalised
  2. To make the picture brighter in poor light, so more detail can be seen
  3. To stop areas such as private windows being viewed or recorded
  4. To increase the zoom range so distant number plates can be read
Show the answer

Answer C. To stop areas such as private windows being viewed or recorded

Privacy blanking prevents the system from showing or recording areas where people would reasonably expect privacy, which supports data protection and human rights compliance.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 1.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 13

Which of these is one of the principles in Article 5 of the UK GDPR?

  1. Personal data should be kept for as long as possible in case it is wanted for some later purpose or inquiry
  2. Personal data should be kept for no longer than is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed
  3. Personal data may be shared with anyone who asks, provided they say they have a good reason
  4. Personal data should be collected for whatever purposes become useful after the system is installed
Show the answer

Answer B. Personal data should be kept for no longer than is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed

Article 5(1)(e) is the storage limitation principle. The other principles cover lawfulness, fairness and transparency, purpose limitation, data minimisation, accuracy and integrity and confidentiality.

Relies on: UK GDPR Art. 5(1)(e); Unit 2 AC 2.1 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 14

Under section 170 of the Data Protection Act 2018, what is an offence if done knowingly or recklessly without the controller’s consent?

  1. Taking a scheduled lunch break
  2. Obtaining or disclosing personal data
  3. Wearing an ID badge on a lanyard
  4. Writing a routine shift report at the end of a patrol
Show the answer

Answer B. Obtaining or disclosing personal data

Section 170(1) makes it an offence to knowingly or recklessly obtain or disclose personal data, or to retain it, without the controller’s consent. There are defences, such as crime prevention or lawful authority.

Relies on: Data Protection Act 2018 s.170(1).

Question 15

Within what time must an organisation normally respond to a subject access request, according to ICO guidance?

  1. Within seven days of receipt, which can be extended by up to a further seven days for urgent requests
  2. Within three months of receipt, with no extension allowed unless the requester agrees to the delay
  3. Within 24 hours of receipt and with no extension, as footage must be released while it still exists
  4. Without undue delay and within one month, extendable by up to two further months if complex
Show the answer

Answer D. Without undue delay and within one month, extendable by up to two further months if complex

The default is one month, extendable by up to two months for complex requests or several requests from the same person, with the requester told within the first month.

Relies on: ICO, Right of access guidance: what should we consider when responding to a request?.

Question 16

Is there a fixed legal period for which CCTV footage must be kept?

  1. Yes, 28 days in every case, because that is the period fixed by the Data Protection Act 2018
  2. Yes, one week in every case, because the ICO requires footage to be deleted after seven days
  3. No, retention should depend on the system’s purpose and be no longer than necessary
  4. Yes, six months in every case, because the Surveillance Camera Code sets that limit
Show the answer

Answer C. No, retention should depend on the system’s purpose and be no longer than necessary

There is no single statutory period. The ICO says the purpose should determine retention, and that a manufacturer’s default setting is not in itself a justification.

Relies on: UK GDPR Art. 5(1)(e); ICO, Guidance on video surveillance including CCTV.

Question 17

To which type of body does the Freedom of Information Act 2000 apply?

  1. Public authorities, such as local councils
  2. Private individuals and their households
  3. Any private company that operates anywhere in the UK
  4. Only registered charities and trusts
Show the answer

Answer A. Public authorities, such as local councils

The Act gives a right of access to information held by public authorities. A local council that runs a town centre control room is a public authority.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 2.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021); Freedom of Information Act 2000 s.1.

Question 18

Which Act provided for a code of practice about surveillance camera systems and created the Surveillance Camera Commissioner?

  1. The Protection of Freedoms Act 2012
  2. The Anti-social Behaviour, Crime and Policing Act 2014
  3. The Criminal Justice Act 2003
  4. The Police Reform Act 2002
Show the answer

Answer A. The Protection of Freedoms Act 2012

Sections 29 to 36 of the Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 deal with the surveillance camera code and the Surveillance Camera Commissioner.

Relies on: Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 ss.29-34; Unit 2 AC 2.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 19

If an operator fails to follow part of the Surveillance Camera Code of Practice, what is the legal effect?

  1. It does not of itself make them liable to proceedings, but the code is admissible in evidence
  2. The failure has no effect in any court, because the code is only guidance for relevant authorities
  3. They are automatically prosecuted and may be jailed, because the code has the force of criminal law
  4. The failure cancels their licence at once, because the code sets conditions for every SIA licence
Show the answer

Answer A. It does not of itself make them liable to proceedings, but the code is admissible in evidence

Section 33(2) and (3) say a failure to act in accordance with the code does not of itself make a person liable to criminal or civil proceedings, but the code is admissible in evidence and a court may take it into account.

Relies on: Protection of Freedoms Act 2012 s.33(2)-(4).

Question 20

Article 8 is a qualified right. What does this mean?

  1. A public authority may interfere only if it is lawful, necessary and proportionate for a legitimate aim
  2. It applies only to children, and may be restricted only with the written consent of their parents
  3. It can never be interfered with by any public authority, not even where that is needed to prevent serious crime or disorder
  4. It applies only to the police, and only while an officer is on duty in a public space or street
Show the answer

Answer A. A public authority may interfere only if it is lawful, necessary and proportionate for a legitimate aim

Article 8(2) allows interference that is in accordance with the law and necessary in a democratic society for aims such as public safety or the prevention of disorder or crime.

Relies on: Human Rights Act 1998 Sch. 1 Pt I Art. 8(2); Unit 2 AC 2.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 21

Which description fits directed surveillance under the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000?

  1. Covert, non-intrusive surveillance for a specific investigation or operation, likely to obtain private information about a person
  2. Surveillance that is an immediate response to events, carried out where authorisation is not practicable
  3. Any surveillance of what takes place in a person’s own home, whether it is carried out openly or covertly
  4. Overt cameras watching a town centre generally, which are used for crime prevention and public safety
Show the answer

Answer A. Covert, non-intrusive surveillance for a specific investigation or operation, likely to obtain private information about a person

Section 26(2) defines directed surveillance as covert but not intrusive, for a specific investigation or operation, likely to obtain private information, and not an immediate response to events.

Relies on: Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 s.26(2); Unit 2 AC 2.5 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 22

Police want to use the town centre CCTV system to follow a named suspect covertly, as part of a planned operation, without the person knowing. What should be considered?

  1. A directed surveillance authorisation under RIPA
  2. A Home Office permit for the cameras used
  3. A premises licence for the control room
  4. Nothing further, because the cameras are overt
Show the answer

Answer A. A directed surveillance authorisation under RIPA

The Home Office code says that using overt CCTV in a covert, pre-planned way against a specific person goes beyond general crime prevention and a directed surveillance authorisation should be considered.

Relies on: Home Office, Covert surveillance and property interference code of practice (updated 22 February 2024), paras 3.36-3.39.

Question 23

A CCTV operator zooms in through a flat window to watch a person undressing, for sexual gratification. What offence may be committed?

  1. Public order offence, using threatening or abusive words in a public place so as to cause harassment, alarm or distress
  2. Theft, dishonestly taking property belonging to another person with the intention of keeping it permanently
  3. Criminal damage, destroying or damaging property belonging to another person without lawful excuse
  4. Voyeurism, observing a person doing a private act for sexual gratification, knowing they do not consent
Show the answer

Answer D. Voyeurism, observing a person doing a private act for sexual gratification, knowing they do not consent

Section 67(1) makes it an offence to observe, for sexual gratification, another person doing a private act, knowing they do not consent to being observed for that purpose.

Relies on: Sexual Offences Act 2003 s.67(1), s.68.

Question 24

What should happen to an operator’s rough notes made during an incident?

  1. They should be destroyed as soon as the incident ends
  2. They should be given to any member of the public who asks
  3. They should be kept, because they can be used as evidence
  4. They should be rewritten from memory the next day
Show the answer

Answer C. They should be kept, because they can be used as evidence

The unit content says rough notes must also be kept as they can be used as evidence.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 3.4 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Question 25

Which grade of response applies where there is a risk to life?

  1. Immediate
  2. No response
  3. Deferred indefinitely
  4. Routine
Show the answer

Answer A. Immediate

In a graded response, immediate means risk to life; routine means action may be deferred as no immediate action is needed.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 6.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC Level 2 Award for CCTV Operators specification, Issue 1, 2021).

Want more practice?

A bank of 256 questions in the same style, as a printable PDF with answers and as a self-marking file that works offline, is on sale as the question bank for £19, with every answer explained and its source given.

Sources

All sources were last checked on 24 October 2026.

Changes to this guide

  • 24 October 2026: Draft written. Questions checked against the sources listed above.

This guide is general information written from the official sources listed above and checked on 24 October 2026. It is not legal, tax or financial advice, and Plainfiles is not endorsed by any government body. Rules change, so check the linked official pages for your own situation. Written and designed by Plainfiles with the help of artificial intelligence (AI) tools, then checked against the official legislation and guidance listed in the sources. How we write and check our guides.