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SIA door supervisor practice test: 25 free questions

Try 25 original questions across the four door supervisor knowledge papers before your course exams. Choose an answer, then open the explanation to see the correct one and the law or guidance behind it.

Reviewed by Liam Humphreys on · Last updated · Last checked · About 3,355 words · How this guide was made, including our use of AI

Practice questions, not the real exam

These questions are original. They were written from the public SIA test specification and the legislation, not copied from any awarding body, past paper or app. This guide is not from or endorsed by the Security Industry Authority (SIA) or any awarding body. The real papers are set by an awarding body and will word things differently. The questions cover the law of England and Wales only. The law changes, so check the sources at the end before you rely on an answer. This is not legal advice.

About the SIA door supervisor exam

The SIA door supervisor exam at a glance
DetailWhat the specification says
Who needs itAnyone applying for a first SIA door supervisor licence needs a licence-linked qualification, the Level 2 Award for Door Supervisors in the Private Security Industry. Training and assessment follow the SIA’s Get Training requirements.
FormatFour externally set multiple-choice papers, one per knowledge unit, plus practical assessments (searching, communication devices, a conflict scenario, an incident report and physical intervention techniques) marked by the training centre. This pack covers the four multiple-choice papers only.
Unit 1 paperPrinciples of Working in the Private Security Industry: 72 questions, 110 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (50 of 72)
Unit 2 paperPrinciples of Working as a Door Supervisor in the Private Security Industry: 50 questions, 75 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (35 of 50)
Unit 3 paperApplication of Conflict Management in the Private Security Industry: 20 questions, 30 minutes, pass mark 70 per cent (14 of 20); the practical scenario is assessed separately
Unit 4 paperApplication of Physical Intervention Skills in the Private Security Industry: 30 questions, 45 minutes, pass mark 80 per cent (24 of 30); the techniques are assessed separately by observation
Who sets the papersThe SIA sets the requirements. Papers are set and marked by the awarding organisation your training centre uses (for example Highfield, Pearson, SFJ Awards, Qualifications Network or Trident Awards). Check which one your centre uses, because question counts and times can vary slightly.
Law coveredEngland and Wales. Scotland and Northern Ireland have different arrest, licensing and drug law; the SIA qualifications adapt that content for those nations, and this guide does not. The questions here cover the law of England and Wales only.

How the quiz works

Read each question and decide on A, B, C or D. Then open Show the answer under it. There is no score, so keep your own tally. Aim for at least 18 out of 25 (70 per cent), which is the pass mark for Units 1 to 3. Unit 4 needs 80 per cent.

Abbreviations used: SIA means Security Industry Authority, PACE means the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, DPS means designated premises supervisor, RIDDOR means the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2013, CCTV means closed-circuit television, PPE means personal protective equipment, HSE means the Health and Safety Executive, and ID means identification.

The 25 questions

Question 1

Which Act created the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

  1. The Private Security Industry Act 2001
  2. The Licensing Act 2003
  3. The Security Service Act 1989
  4. The Police Reform Act 2002
Show the answer

Answer A. The Private Security Industry Act 2001

Section 1 of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 set up the SIA as a body corporate and gave it its functions.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 s.1(1).

Question 2

A person works as a door supervisor at a pub without an SIA licence while alcohol is being supplied. What is the maximum penalty on summary conviction?

  1. Up to five years in prison only
  2. Up to six months in prison, a fine up to level 5, or both
  3. A fine of up to level 1 only
  4. A caution, but never a fine
Show the answer

Answer B. Up to six months in prison, a fine up to level 5, or both

Engaging in licensable conduct without a licence is an offence under section 3. On summary conviction the maximum is six months’ imprisonment, a level 5 fine, or both.

Relies on: Private Security Industry Act 2001 s.3(1) and (6).

Question 3

Which of these is a protected characteristic under the Equality Act 2010?

  1. Employment status
  2. Football team supported
  3. Gender reassignment
  4. Criminal record
Show the answer

Answer C. Gender reassignment

Section 4 lists age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage and civil partnership, pregnancy and maternity, race, religion or belief, sex and sexual orientation.

Relies on: Equality Act 2010 s.4.

Question 4

Which article of the European Convention on Human Rights, as set out in the Human Rights Act 1998, protects the right to liberty and security of person?

  1. Article 8
  2. Article 12
  3. Article 10
  4. Article 5
Show the answer

Answer D. Article 5

Article 5 protects liberty and security. This matters to security staff because detaining a person takes away their liberty.

Relies on: Human Rights Act 1998 Sch. 1, Art. 5.

Question 5

Under section 24A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, for what kind of offence can a person who is not a constable arrest without a warrant?

  1. Any anti-social behaviour
  2. Any breach of venue house rules
  3. Any summary offence, such as common assault
  4. An indictable offence that is being or has been committed
Show the answer

Answer D. An indictable offence that is being or has been committed

Section 24A applies to indictable offences, which include either-way offences such as theft and actual bodily harm. Common assault is a summary-only offence, so section 24A does not cover it.

Relies on: Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 s.24A(1) and (2); Criminal Justice Act 1988 s.39.

Question 6

Which section of the Criminal Law Act 1967 allows a person to use such force as is reasonable in the circumstances to prevent crime or to make a lawful arrest?

  1. Section 76
  2. Section 9
  3. Section 3(1)
  4. Section 24
Show the answer

Answer C. Section 3(1)

Section 3(1) says a person may use such force as is reasonable in the circumstances in the prevention of crime, or in effecting or assisting in a lawful arrest.

Relies on: Criminal Law Act 1967 s.3(1).

Question 7

Under section 7 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974, what is the duty of an employee while at work?

  1. To take reasonable care for their own health and safety and that of others affected by what they do or fail to do
  2. To carry out any task, however unsafe, if the employer asks
  3. To make sure customers have first aid training
  4. To report only the accidents that happen to themselves
Show the answer

Answer A. To take reasonable care for their own health and safety and that of others affected by what they do or fail to do

Section 7 requires employees to take reasonable care of themselves and others affected by their acts or omissions, and to co-operate with the employer so far as is necessary for the employer to comply with the law.

Relies on: Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 s.7.

Question 8

Under the Health and Safety (Safety Signs and Signals) Regulations 1996, what does a blue circular sign with a white symbol mean?

  1. A safe condition or first aid point
  2. A warning: be careful
  3. A prohibition: something must not be done
  4. A mandatory sign: specific behaviour or action is required
Show the answer

Answer D. A mandatory sign: specific behaviour or action is required

Schedule 1 gives blue for mandatory signs (specific behaviour or action), red for prohibition, yellow or amber for warning, and green for emergency escape and first aid.

Relies on: Health and Safety (Safety Signs and Signals) Regulations 1996 Sch. 1.

Question 9

Which three things must be present for a fire to start?

  1. Oxygen, carbon dioxide and wind
  2. Heat, light and smoke
  3. Fuel, water and smoke
  4. Fuel, oxygen and a source of heat or ignition
Show the answer

Answer D. Fuel, oxygen and a source of heat or ignition

GOV.UK fire safety guidance describes the fire triangle as a source of ignition, fuel and oxygen. Removing any one of them stops a fire starting or continuing.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Fire safety risk assessment: small and medium places of assembly, Part 1 (fire triangle).

Question 10

According to the UK national threat level system, what does the level “severe” mean?

  1. An attack is possible but not likely
  2. An attack is highly likely
  3. An attack is likely
  4. An attack is highly unlikely
Show the answer

Answer B. An attack is highly likely

The five levels are low (highly unlikely), moderate (possible but not likely), substantial (likely), severe (highly likely) and critical (highly likely in the near future).

Relies on: GOV.UK, Terrorism and national emergencies, https://www.gov.uk/terrorism-national-emergency.

Question 11

A door supervisor finds an unattended bag near the entrance. What does the “HOT” protocol help them decide?

  1. Whether the item is Hidden, Obviously suspicious or Typical for the location
  2. Whether the owner is Hurt, Ordinary or Tired
  3. Whether the item is Heavy, Old or Torn
  4. Whether the entrance is Hot, Open or Tidy
Show the answer

Answer A. Whether the item is Hidden, Obviously suspicious or Typical for the location

HOT stands for Hidden, Obviously suspicious and Typical. If an item still looks suspicious after applying HOT, call 999.

Relies on: ProtectUK, HOT protocol, https://www.protectuk.police.uk/advice-and-guidance/awareness/other-threats.

Question 12

What are the basic elements of theft under the Theft Act 1968?

  1. Finding lost property and handing it in
  2. Dishonestly appropriating property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving them of it
  3. Damaging property belonging to another
  4. Borrowing property with permission
Show the answer

Answer B. Dishonestly appropriating property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving them of it

Section 1(1) defines theft as dishonestly appropriating property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it.

Relies on: Theft Act 1968 s.1(1).

Question 13

Under section 1 of the Prevention of Crime Act 1953, how is an “offensive weapon” defined?

  1. An article made or adapted for causing injury to a person, or intended by the person having it to be used for that purpose
  2. Only a firearm or knife
  3. Only an item bought from a weapons shop
  4. Any article in a person’s pocket
Show the answer

Answer A. An article made or adapted for causing injury to a person, or intended by the person having it to be used for that purpose

Section 1(4) covers articles made for causing injury (such as a knuckleduster), adapted for it, or intended by the person having it with them for causing injury. An ordinary item such as a bottle can become an offensive weapon by intent.

Relies on: Prevention of Crime Act 1953 s.1(4).

Question 14

What is the basis on which a door supervisor searches a customer at a licensed venue?

  1. The same powers as a police officer
  2. A legal power given by the SIA licence
  3. The authority of the nearest customer
  4. The customer’s permission, as part of the venue’s admission policy or conditions of entry
Show the answer

Answer D. The customer’s permission, as part of the venue’s admission policy or conditions of entry

A door supervisor has no special statutory search power. They may search only with the person’s consent, as a condition of entry under the venue’s admissions policy.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 2.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023); SIA Physical Intervention Specification (2021) (same rights as a private individual).

Question 15

Which Act makes it unlawful to possess a controlled drug without authority?

  1. The Private Security Industry Act 2001
  2. The Theft Act 1968
  3. The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971
  4. The Licensing Act 2003
Show the answer

Answer C. The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971

Section 5 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 makes it unlawful, and an offence, to possess a controlled drug. Section 4 covers production and supply.

Relies on: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 ss.4 and 5.

Question 16

Which of these is a Class A drug?

  1. Cocaine
  2. Diazepam
  3. Ketamine
  4. Cannabis
Show the answer

Answer A. Cocaine

GOV.UK lists cocaine, crack cocaine, ecstasy (MDMA), heroin, LSD, magic mushrooms, methadone and methamphetamine as Class A. Cannabis and ketamine are Class B. Diazepam is Class C.

Relies on: GOV.UK, Penalties for drug possession and dealing, https://www.gov.uk/penalties-drug-possession-dealing.

Question 17

Which of these is a licensing objective under section 4 of the Licensing Act 2003?

  1. The protection of children from harm
  2. The maximisation of alcohol sales
  3. The regulation of taxis
  4. The promotion of tourism
Show the answer

Answer A. The protection of children from harm

The four objectives are the prevention of crime and disorder, public safety, the prevention of public nuisance and the protection of children from harm.

Relies on: Licensing Act 2003 s.4(2).

Question 18

A customer is asked to leave licensed premises by a door supervisor acting for the licence holder, but refuses. What is the legal position?

  1. They can stay if they have paid
  2. They become a trespasser and can be ejected using no more than reasonable force
  3. They may be removed with any amount of force
  4. They may only be removed by the police
Show the answer

Answer B. They become a trespasser and can be ejected using no more than reasonable force

A person who refuses to leave when asked becomes a trespasser, and may be ejected using only such force as is reasonable and necessary.

Relies on: Unit 2 AC 5.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023); common law on trespassers.

Question 19

Under section 21 of the Licensing Act 2003, what must a premises licence require if it includes a condition that individuals carry out a security activity?

  1. That each individual works for the council
  2. That each individual holds a personal licence
  3. That each individual holds an SIA licence or is entitled to carry out the activity under section 4 of the Private Security Industry Act 2001
  4. That each individual is over 30
Show the answer

Answer C. That each individual holds an SIA licence or is entitled to carry out the activity under section 4 of the Private Security Industry Act 2001

Section 21 is a mandatory condition for premises licences that require security staff: each individual must hold an SIA licence or be entitled to act without one.

Relies on: Licensing Act 2003 s.21(1).

Question 20

Which approach to communication helps manage conflict?

  1. Pretending not to hear
  2. Interrupting to save time
  3. Being positive, professional, calm, clear and polite
  4. Being sarcastic to show control
Show the answer

Answer C. Being positive, professional, calm, clear and polite

Positive and constructive communication, using effective skills, is vital to defuse and avoid conflict.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 1.2 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 21

What is a dynamic risk assessment?

  1. Continuously identifying and assessing risk as a situation develops, acting to reduce it and reviewing the result
  2. A review done only after an incident
  3. A written report completed once a year
  4. A checklist used by the council
Show the answer

Answer A. Continuously identifying and assessing risk as a situation develops, acting to reduce it and reviewing the result

A dynamic risk assessment means identifying and assessing risks, taking action to eliminate or reduce them, monitoring and reviewing, and recognising escalation and reacting appropriately.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 2.1 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 22

What is a “win-win” outcome?

  1. An outcome where only the customer wins
  2. An outcome where both parties lose
  3. An outcome where only the venue wins
  4. An outcome where everyone involved is satisfied
Show the answer

Answer D. An outcome where everyone involved is satisfied

Win-win approaches use active listening, empathy, problem solving and negotiation so that each side gets an acceptable result.

Relies on: Unit 3 AC 3.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 23

What legal rights does an SIA-licensed door supervisor have when using force?

  1. The same powers as a police constable
  2. No right to use force in any circumstance
  3. The same rights as a private individual and no more
  4. Greater powers than the public because they are licensed
Show the answer

Answer C. The same rights as a private individual and no more

The SIA specification says that achieving the qualification does not remove the obligation to act within the law on use of force, and that a door supervisor has the same rights as a private individual and no more.

Relies on: SIA Knowledge and Skills Specification: Physical Intervention Skills (Feb 2021), foreword.

Question 24

What is positional (restraint) asphyxia?

  1. A disease caused by smoking
  2. Breathing is restricted by the position or pressure of a forceful restraint, which can cause death or brain damage
  3. A reaction to alcohol only
  4. A fear of heights
Show the answer

Answer B. Breathing is restricted by the position or pressure of a forceful restraint, which can cause death or brain damage

Positional asphyxia occurs mostly in ground restraints where a person is held forcefully face down or face up. People have died, and others have suffered permanent brain damage.

Relies on: Unit 4 AC 2.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Question 25

Which of these helps reduce the risk of harm during physical intervention?

  1. Choose the least forceful intervention practicable and avoid high-risk positions such as ground restraints
  2. Ignore complaints of difficulty breathing
  3. Keep restraining until the person stops speaking
  4. Use neck holds to calm people quickly
Show the answer

Answer A. Choose the least forceful intervention practicable and avoid high-risk positions such as ground restraints

Reduce risk by choosing the least forceful intervention, avoiding high-risk positions and methods such as neck holds, keeping up communication, monitoring the person, working as a team, and de-escalating at the earliest opportunity.

Relies on: Unit 4 AC 3.3 (SIA-required unit content, Pearson BTEC specification, Issue 2, 2023).

Want more practice?

A bank of 295 questions in the same style, as a printable PDF with answers and as a self-marking file that works offline, is on sale as the question bank for £19, with every answer explained and its source given.

Sources

All sources were last checked on 23 October 2026.

Changes to this guide

  • 23 October 2026: Draft written. Questions checked against the sources listed above.

This guide is general information written from the official sources listed above and checked on 23 October 2026. It is not legal, tax or financial advice, and Plainfiles is not endorsed by any government body. Rules change, so check the linked official pages for your own situation. Written and designed by Plainfiles with the help of artificial intelligence (AI) tools, then checked against the official legislation and guidance listed in the sources. How we write and check our guides.